The Bible teaches that Christ was begotten when He was raised from the dead (Acts 13:33, 34). Isn’t this the real meaning of “only begotten” rather than your idea?

Answer

Let us read the passage in question and see what it means:

Acts 13:33, 34 “God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.”

Let us see what the SDA Bible commentary says regarding this text:

“Raised up Jesus again. Or, “raised up Jesus.” These words may most naturally be understood to refer to the resurrection of Christ. But if so, a problem arises in regard to the application of the quotation that follows from Ps. 2 (see below on “this day”). Therefore many commentators understand the words, “raised up Jesus,” here in the same sense that they appear in chs. 3:22; 7:37, where they clearly refer, not to the resurrection, but to God’s introduction of Christ into this world. See on Deut. 18:15”

The above is enough to prove that even the church’s theologians do not understand this text in the way the objectors do. The term “raised up Jesus” is applied to the incarnation, not to the resurrection.

This is confirmed when we read the first few words of the next verse, v.34. Here are the words:

“And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead”

Paul is introducing a new topic, namely the resurrection of Jesus Christ. So this tells us that the verse prior to it, v.33, was not talking about His resurrection. (See Romans 1:4; Revelation 1:5 which do refer to Christ as begotten from the dead)

But nonetheless, let us examine the verse in context and see what it is talking about.

“And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. And as concerning that he raised him up from the dead, now no more to return to corruption, he said on this wise, I will give you the sure mercies of David.” Acts 13:32-34

We will address these verses in sections:

“And we declare unto you glad tidings, how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children”

The question is: what promise is Paul talking about, and how did God fulfill it?

We find the answer for the first part of the question in Acts 13:23

“Of this man’s seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus”

Here we find that the promise Paul is referring to was raising up a Saviour unto Israel. Here is another text that sheds more light:

“For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren…” Acts 3:22

What did God mean by raising up a Saviour? Did He mean raising Him up from the dead ?

“For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord.” Luke 2:11

There is our answer. “raised unto Israel a Saviour” means what Luke said “born….a Saviour”.

The answer for the second part of the question ‘How did God fulfill this promise?’ is found in Galatians 4:4, 5 “But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law”

God fulfilled His promise by sending His Son into the world, by raising up a savior, Jesus. That is what Paul meant by saying “in that he hath raised up Jesus again” Acts 13:33

Obviously Acts 13:33 is not referring to the resurrection from the dead. Rather it is referring to raising up a savior or as Luke puts it “For unto you is born…a Savior” Luke 2:11, when He was born on earth.

“God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee.”

Why does Paul make reference to the second Psalm?

Psalms 2:7 “I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.”

Christ, speaking through David, declares that He is the begotten Son of God. He was begotten before all things. When He came to be born on earth He became the Son of God in a new sense.

“In His incarnation He gained in a new sense the title of the Son of God. Said the angel to Mary, "The power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God" (Luke 1:35). While the Son of a human being, He became the Son of God in a new sense. Thus He stood in our world--the Son of God, yet allied by birth to the human race.” {1SM 226.2}

Paul uses the birth of Christ on earth and compares it with Christ being begotten of His Father in eternity of the past. The birth of Christ from His Father in eternity of the past is made clear in many passages. Proverbs 8:22-25 sets this fact straight for us. The Spirit of Prophecy tells us:

“And the Son of God declares concerning Himself: "The Lord possessed Me in the beginning of His way, before His works of old. I was set up from everlasting. . . . When He appointed the foundations of the earth: then I was by Him, as one brought up with Him: and I was daily His delight, rejoicing always before Him." Proverbs 8:22-30. {PP 34.1}

Thus, Acts 13:33 is not dealing with the resurrection at all, rather it is the incarnation.